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Optometry Board Practice Test for the NBEO® Part 1 Test #2 – Systemic Disease This test is comprised of 21 items. This is PRACTICE mode. There is no countdown timer and answers are shown after each question. |
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Which of the following are adverse effects of pyogenesis? (SELECT 3)
A,B,E. Pyogenesis is defined as the production of heat. Dehydration is a main adverse effect of heat conduction due to the increased lacrimation of the sweat glands. Fever is self explanatory. If the body produces too much heat it can lead to severe brain damage and thus shut off major motor functions in the body
A,B,E. Pyogenesis is defined as the production of heat. Dehydration is a main adverse effect of heat conduction due to the increased lacrimation of the sweat glands. Fever is self explanatory. If the body produces too much heat it can lead to severe brain damage and thus shut off major motor functions in the body
Liquefactive necrosis is characteristic of which type of disease process?
B. Although liquefactive necrosis can be caused by focal bacterial infection, it is very rare. More often than not fungal infections lead to liquefactive necrosis due to the rapid spreading of the spores within the body.
B. Although liquefactive necrosis can be caused by focal bacterial infection, it is very rare. More often than not fungal infections lead to liquefactive necrosis due to the rapid spreading of the spores within the body.
Which of the following will invariably lead to metabolic alkalosis if untreated?
D. Metabolic alkalosis is directly a result of too much alkaline in the blood or lack of acid in the body. Stomach acid is the greatest contributor to metabolic acid in the body. If constant vomiting occurs the body becomes more basic due to this amount of acidic loss.
D. Metabolic alkalosis is directly a result of too much alkaline in the blood or lack of acid in the body. Stomach acid is the greatest contributor to metabolic acid in the body. If constant vomiting occurs the body becomes more basic due to this amount of acidic loss.
The initial origin of the hormonal changes that cause puberty is from the _____________ gland.
B. hypothalamus. Puberty’s trigger lies in a small part of the brain called the hypothalamus, a gland that secretes gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
B. hypothalamus. Puberty’s trigger lies in a small part of the brain called the hypothalamus, a gland that secretes gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
Broca’s areas is supplied by which of the following?
B. middle cerebral artery. Broca’s area is located in the frontal gyrus of the left side of the brain. If damaged the patient can experience aphasia.
B. middle cerebral artery. Broca’s area is located in the frontal gyrus of the left side of the brain. If damaged the patient can experience aphasia.
Please select the correct order of ear bones from most superficial to least superficial.
B. Malleus, incus, stapes
B. Malleus, incus, stapes
Which of the following is more relevant to chrysiasis?
A. Rheumatoid arthritis. Chrysiasis is the phenomenon of bluish to slate-gray skin pigmentation induced by prolonged treatment with gold salts. The most common etiology is the administration of gold salts to patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
A. Rheumatoid arthritis. Chrysiasis is the phenomenon of bluish to slate-gray skin pigmentation induced by prolonged treatment with gold salts. The most common etiology is the administration of gold salts to patients with rheumatoid arthritis.
All of the following are true regarding parinaud oculoglandular syndrome EXCEPT
B. Parinaud oculoglandular syndrome has no particular environment in which it thrives. Parinaud Oculoglandular Syndrome is a conjunctival disease characterized by a unilateral granulomatous follicular conjunctivitis associated with ipsilateral regional lymphadenopathy. There are many vectors that transmit organisms that cause oculoglandular syndrome, of which, Cat Scratch Disease is the most common cause.
B. Parinaud oculoglandular syndrome has no particular environment in which it thrives. Parinaud Oculoglandular Syndrome is a conjunctival disease characterized by a unilateral granulomatous follicular conjunctivitis associated with ipsilateral regional lymphadenopathy. There are many vectors that transmit organisms that cause oculoglandular syndrome, of which, Cat Scratch Disease is the most common cause.
Which of the following systemic syndromes is not associated with HLA-B27?
C. Behcet’s disease has no connection with the HLA b27 gene. Remember the UCRAP acronym to describe the HLA B27
C. Behcet’s disease has no connection with the HLA b27 gene. Remember the UCRAP acronym to describe the HLA B27
Which of the following laboratory tests would be MOST appropriate for a patient with chronic, bilateral, granulomatous anterior uveitis?
A. Chest X-Ray. The patient is experiencing the signs of sarcoidosis. In addition we would run a ACE test
A. Chest X-Ray. The patient is experiencing the signs of sarcoidosis. In addition we would run a ACE test
Which of the following laboratory tests can be used to diagnose a suspect Syphilis patient?
B. FTAB-ABS and VDRL are test specifically for syphilis
B. FTAB-ABS and VDRL are test specifically for syphilis
Osteogenesis imperfecta is the result of abnormalities of which collagen gene type?
A. Type 1.
A. Type 1.
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Rieger Anomaly?
A, Dental abnormalities. Rieger’s syndrome is an autosomal-dominant disorder associated with malformation of the iris, pupillary anomalies, and hypoplasia of the teeth, with or without maxillary hypoplasia. A large family in which multiple individuals had both Rieger’s syndrome and IGHD. Rieger’s anomaly does not have dental abnormalities. Once dental is involved then it upgrades to syndrome.
A, Dental abnormalities. Rieger’s syndrome is an autosomal-dominant disorder associated with malformation of the iris, pupillary anomalies, and hypoplasia of the teeth, with or without maxillary hypoplasia. A large family in which multiple individuals had both Rieger’s syndrome and IGHD. Rieger’s anomaly does not have dental abnormalities. Once dental is involved then it upgrades to syndrome.
Which hormones are found to be deficient in production in patients with hypothyroidism?
C. T4. T4 also known as triiodothyronine is found to be in decreased numbers when testing in patients with hypothyroidism. Elevated TSH are found also in hypothyroidism patients
C. T4. T4 also known as triiodothyronine is found to be in decreased numbers when testing in patients with hypothyroidism. Elevated TSH are found also in hypothyroidism patients
Physiologically, NVI and NVD are broken blood vessels caused by damage to what?
A. Pericytes. NVI is directly caused by diabetes which attacks pericytes on the short posterior ciliary arteries located in the inner nuclear layer which stops the autoregulation of the arteries and leads to retinal ischemia. Due to the newfound retinal ischemia, the RPE releases VEGF to create new blood vessel formation, otherwise known as neovascularization.
A. Pericytes. NVI is directly caused by diabetes which attacks pericytes on the short posterior ciliary arteries located in the inner nuclear layer which stops the autoregulation of the arteries and leads to retinal ischemia. Due to the newfound retinal ischemia, the RPE releases VEGF to create new blood vessel formation, otherwise known as neovascularization.
Which of the following glands is only innervated directly by preganglionic sympathetic fibers?
C. Adrenal glands are the only directly innervated gland by the preganglionic sympathetic
C. Adrenal glands are the only directly innervated gland by the preganglionic sympathetic
What must the CD4 count be in order for a patent to be susceptible with Cytomegalovirus?
B. CD4 counts below 50 indicates a diagnosis of AIDS and those with a weakened immune system have a higher likelihood to contract cytomegalovirus.
B. CD4 counts below 50 indicates a diagnosis of AIDS and those with a weakened immune system have a higher likelihood to contract cytomegalovirus.
Which of the following have low survivability outcomes for patients?
A. Non- hodgkins lymphoma has a poorer outcome in patients than the other options listed. All prognosis are good if caught early, however the most aggressive cancer of the ones listed is non-hodgkin’s lymphoma.
A. Non- hodgkins lymphoma has a poorer outcome in patients than the other options listed. All prognosis are good if caught early, however the most aggressive cancer of the ones listed is non-hodgkin’s lymphoma.
A patient comes into the clinic with 1-2 mm hemorrhages within the skin. Which of the following terms is the best way to categorize this type of hemorrhage?
C. Petechiae.
Purpura are greater than 3 mm hemorrhages associated with trauma, local vascular inflammation, and low platelet counts. Ecchymoses is a hematoma that exceeds 1-2 cm and are considered subcutaneous hematomas or bruises. Hemoperitoneum is a large accumulation of blood in body cavities.
C. Petechiae.
Purpura are greater than 3 mm hemorrhages associated with trauma, local vascular inflammation, and low platelet counts. Ecchymoses is a hematoma that exceeds 1-2 cm and are considered subcutaneous hematomas or bruises. Hemoperitoneum is a large accumulation of blood in body cavities.
What is typically the MOST common area in which an aneurysm can occur?
A. Abdominal aorta is one of the most common sites of aneurysms next to the iliac and large arteries that flow into the heart
A. Abdominal aorta is one of the most common sites of aneurysms next to the iliac and large arteries that flow into the heart
What is the main cause of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?
B. Alcoholism. Wernicke- Korsakoff syndrome is a direct cause of a lack of thiamine deficiency caused by alcoholism. Please note thiamine may also be referred to as Vitamin B1 and results in a cecocentral visual field defect as damage of the papillomacular bundle results in bilateral temporal optic disc pallor.
B. Alcoholism. Wernicke- Korsakoff syndrome is a direct cause of a lack of thiamine deficiency caused by alcoholism. Please note thiamine may also be referred to as Vitamin B1 and results in a cecocentral visual field defect as damage of the papillomacular bundle results in bilateral temporal optic disc pallor.