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Optometry Board Practice Test for the NBEO® Part 1 Full Length Test #2 – Afternoon Session This test is comprised of 175 items. This is PRACTICE mode. There is no countdown timer and answers are shown after each question. |
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Which of the following is true for nerve impulse conduction?
B. nerve impulses are regulated by myelination of the axons. The more myelination a nerve has the slower the impulse. Continuous condition is slower due to the fact that the nerve undergoes a repolarization phase that lasts longer than a non continuous conduction.
B. nerve impulses are regulated by myelination of the axons. The more myelination a nerve has the slower the impulse. Continuous condition is slower due to the fact that the nerve undergoes a repolarization phase that lasts longer than a non continuous conduction.
A patient comes into the clinic with 1-2 mm hemorrhages within the skin. Which of the following terms is the best way to categorize this type of hemorrhage?
C. Petechiae.
Purpura are greater than 3 mm hemorrhages associated with trauma, local vascular inflammation, and low platelet counts. Ecchymoses is a hematoma that exceeds 1-2 cm and are considered subcutaneous hematomas or bruises. Hemoperitoneum is a large accumulation of blood in body cavities.
C. Petechiae.
Purpura are greater than 3 mm hemorrhages associated with trauma, local vascular inflammation, and low platelet counts. Ecchymoses is a hematoma that exceeds 1-2 cm and are considered subcutaneous hematomas or bruises. Hemoperitoneum is a large accumulation of blood in body cavities.
Which of the following are considered risk factors for PVD? (SELECT 2)
A,B. Risk factors for PVD include age, myopia, diabetes, intraocular surgery and inflammation, as well as trauma
A,B. Risk factors for PVD include age, myopia, diabetes, intraocular surgery and inflammation, as well as trauma
Which of the following is NOT true regarding Scleromalacia perforans?
C. Scleromalacia perforans is a rare, severe eye disorder developing an autoimmune damage of episcleral and scleral performing vessels.
C. Scleromalacia perforans is a rare, severe eye disorder developing an autoimmune damage of episcleral and scleral performing vessels.
A 34 year old female is having issues determining the edge and color of an object. The patient was diagnosed with a tumor found pressing on the LGN. What cells in the LGN are directly affected in this patient and what layer are these cells mostly found?
D. simple cells are located in layer 4 of the LGN. Simple cells have elongated center surround receptive fields that respond to specific orientation, edge, color and depth.
D. simple cells are located in layer 4 of the LGN. Simple cells have elongated center surround receptive fields that respond to specific orientation, edge, color and depth.
Which of the following is MOST associated with dry eye disease?
A. Dry eye disease is directly linked to the lack of aqueous produced by the tear glands.
A. Dry eye disease is directly linked to the lack of aqueous produced by the tear glands.
A patient brings their newborn into the office for a new onset irritated right eye. What is the given time period in which ophthalmia neonatorum develops postpartum?
D. 2-5 days
D. 2-5 days
The fibers in the visual pathway known as the anterior knee of willbrand do what?
C. posterior knees loop into the ipsilateral optic tract before crossing
C. posterior knees loop into the ipsilateral optic tract before crossing
The Schwann cell loses its coating as sensory nerves of the cornea pass through the _______ ?
D. Descemet membrane. The naked nerve endings are located in the epithelium and the nerves lose their myelin sheath as they enter the corneal stroma from the limbus
D. Descemet membrane. The naked nerve endings are located in the epithelium and the nerves lose their myelin sheath as they enter the corneal stroma from the limbus
All of the following can increase the amount of oxygen reaching the cornea EXCEPT:
C. Decreasing edge lift will cause a decrease in oxygen not increase oxygen.
C. Decreasing edge lift will cause a decrease in oxygen not increase oxygen.
Osteogenesis imperfecta is the result of abnormalities of which collagen gene type?
A. Type 1.
A. Type 1.
A symporter is best defined as?
D. Symporter means the same. Ions are moved in the same direction together against a gradient. Usually a secondary passive process but can be a primary process as well.
D. Symporter means the same. Ions are moved in the same direction together against a gradient. Usually a secondary passive process but can be a primary process as well.
According to the Ocular hypertension treatment study (OHTS), which one of the following has a higher risk of developing glaucoma?
C. High IOP and thicker cornea. A thicker cornea will cause a falsely low IOP reading. A thinner cornea will cause a falsely high IOP. The higher the IOP is past 21mmHg the higher the likelihood the patient will have glaucoma.
C. High IOP and thicker cornea. A thicker cornea will cause a falsely low IOP reading. A thinner cornea will cause a falsely high IOP. The higher the IOP is past 21mmHg the higher the likelihood the patient will have glaucoma.
Which of the following is NOT associated with Scleral Injury due to trauma?
D. Scleral injury cause a decrease in IOP not an increase in IOP
D. Scleral injury cause a decrease in IOP not an increase in IOP
Performing retinoscopy on a 3D myope, a +1.50-3.00×090 cylinder lens is placed behind the phoropter. What will be your retinoscopy finding?
D.
D.
Fitting steeper than K:
B. creates a positive tear lens.
B. creates a positive tear lens.
Ceftriaxone is useful in the management of which of the following?
B. Ceftriaxone 1g is a treatment for syphilis.
B. Ceftriaxone 1g is a treatment for syphilis.
The equatorial region of the fundus begins where?
C. immediately posterior to the vortex veins
C. immediately posterior to the vortex veins
What controls the amount of Na+ channels opening and closure in a photoreceptor?
B. cGMP keeps Na+ channels open to promote depolarization when glutamate is released to bipolar cells. An increase in light decreases levels of cGMP resulting in closure of the sodium channels, hence the negative charge of the cell membrane increases to -65mV.
B. cGMP keeps Na+ channels open to promote depolarization when glutamate is released to bipolar cells. An increase in light decreases levels of cGMP resulting in closure of the sodium channels, hence the negative charge of the cell membrane increases to -65mV.
When evaluating an RGP fit, the following is true:
B. the mid periphery the lens must be closer to the eye then other parts of the lens in order to provide an ideal seal and lacrimal lens power for the patient.
B. the mid periphery the lens must be closer to the eye then other parts of the lens in order to provide an ideal seal and lacrimal lens power for the patient.
What is the net movement of ions in the cornea during corneal deturgescence?
B. K is actively outside on the tear film and moves into the stroma to the aqueous humor. As this happens Na passively enters epithelial cells from the tear film
B. K is actively outside on the tear film and moves into the stroma to the aqueous humor. As this happens Na passively enters epithelial cells from the tear film
Genital sores due to Herpes Simplex II is best treated with the combination of oral and topical
C. Acyclovir is converted to its triphosphate form, acyclovir triphosphate (ACV-TP), which competitively inhibits viral DNA polymerase, incorporates into and terminates the growing viral DNA chain, and inactivates the viral DNA polymerase
C. Acyclovir is converted to its triphosphate form, acyclovir triphosphate (ACV-TP), which competitively inhibits viral DNA polymerase, incorporates into and terminates the growing viral DNA chain, and inactivates the viral DNA polymerase
What is the mode of action of adrenergic antagonists?
D. Adrenergic antagonists are considered beta blockers. The MOA of beta blockers are to decrease the production of Aqueous Humor in the ciliary body
D. Adrenergic antagonists are considered beta blockers. The MOA of beta blockers are to decrease the production of Aqueous Humor in the ciliary body
Five different lasers are being used laser “A” has a wavelength of 532 nm and uses a pulse of 10ms. Laser “B” has wavelength of 1064 nm and uses pulse of 10ns, Laser “C” has wavelength of 527 nm and pulse of 20ps, Laser “D” has wavelength of 1053nm and uses pulse of 20ps and Laser “E” has wavelength of 7450nm with pulse of 50ps. Which of the following lasers will most likely cause a photochemical damage mechanism?
C. Need low wavelength and fast pulse = strong power and fast pulse
C. Need low wavelength and fast pulse = strong power and fast pulse
All of following represent applications of the mie scattering of high EXCEPT
D. Raleigh scattering occurs because of this not Mie scattering
D. Raleigh scattering occurs because of this not Mie scattering
You hand neutralize a lens and find no motion when a -1.50D trial lens is used along the 90 degree meridian (moving lens up and down) and no motion when a -1.00 D trial lens is ADDED to the initial -1.50 D lens used along the 180 degree meridian (moving side to side). What is the power of the lens?
C.
C.
Referring to Direct ophthalmoscopy, which of the following statements is FALSE?
E. produces a virtual image. A DO produces a real image
E. produces a virtual image. A DO produces a real image
The focal length of the objective lens of a telescope is 440mm. The focal length of the ocular lens is 44mm. What is the magnification of the telescope?
A. -10X ; Fobj=440mm Feye=44mm ; M=-440/44=-10X
A. -10X ; Fobj=440mm Feye=44mm ; M=-440/44=-10X
Which of the following is most likely to cause aneurysm in the Circle of Willis?
E. Posterior communicating artery is the most commonly artery in the Circle of Willis that is subjected to aneurysm.
E. Posterior communicating artery is the most commonly artery in the Circle of Willis that is subjected to aneurysm.
Your patient has an acquired Blue-yellow defect. Which one of the following will be the best diagnostic test?
C. Anomaloscope test. Anomaloscope is the only color vision test that can determine anomalous trichromats from dichromates. It is considered one of 2 accurate color vision tests we have in our toolbox, followed by the ishihara test.
C. Anomaloscope test. Anomaloscope is the only color vision test that can determine anomalous trichromats from dichromates. It is considered one of 2 accurate color vision tests we have in our toolbox, followed by the ishihara test.
You perform a Brock string test on a patient and they report that the strings cross in front of the center dot. What type of deviation do they have?
A. Eso deviation. Eso deviation has a nasal eccentric fixation point thus creating a crossing of the lines closer than normal
A. Eso deviation. Eso deviation has a nasal eccentric fixation point thus creating a crossing of the lines closer than normal
Which of the following are associated with a motor response? (SELECT 3)
A,C,E
A,C,E
On the electromagnetic spectrum, which wavelength causes the MOST damage to the cornea?
D. 499-420 falls on the blue light spectrum lower half. This is shown to cause slight corneal damage with long term exposure. Hence why blue light adaptive lenses are currently used to help alleviate side effects caused by blue light.
D. 499-420 falls on the blue light spectrum lower half. This is shown to cause slight corneal damage with long term exposure. Hence why blue light adaptive lenses are currently used to help alleviate side effects caused by blue light.
Which of the following lens materials has the least amount of dispersive power?
A. CR-39. The higher the abbe value the less amount of CA there is. CR 39 abbe 58, Polycarbonate abbe 30, Trivex abbe 43
A. CR-39. The higher the abbe value the less amount of CA there is. CR 39 abbe 58, Polycarbonate abbe 30, Trivex abbe 43
A person with 20/80 VA is just able to read a letter 11 meters in front of him. What is the size of the letter?
A. 6.4cm : 80/20(8.73)(11/6)= 64 mm which is equivalent to 6.4 cm
A. 6.4cm : 80/20(8.73)(11/6)= 64 mm which is equivalent to 6.4 cm
These cells display CD 4 markers in their membrane and are associated with MC class II molecules.
A. Helper T cells
A. Helper T cells
All mature T cells express what
B. CD4 is expressed by T cells
B. CD4 is expressed by T cells
While performing a slit lamp biomicroscopy, at what distance must the object be from the objective lens such that an objective lens has a focal power of 22.75 mm and the ocular lens has 200 mm focal lens separated by a distance of 500 mm. The OTL is 277.25 mm. Assume an emmetropic optometrist
C.
C.
Which of the following lenses should be chosen to achieve the same optical correction of a lens with BCR of 7.58 and a power of +2.00D?
B. 7.67/+2.50. Index of refraction of most contact lens is 1.3375. To find the power of the cornea we use the equation (n-1/r)1000. (1.3375-1/7.58)1000=44.52. The answer choices that have a BCR of 7.50 we would need a compensation power of 1.50 in order to provide an adequate fit with no over refraction. For a BCR of 7.67 we would need a compensation power of 2.50 in order to provide an adequate fit with no over refraction.
B. 7.67/+2.50. Index of refraction of most contact lens is 1.3375. To find the power of the cornea we use the equation (n-1/r)1000. (1.3375-1/7.58)1000=44.52. The answer choices that have a BCR of 7.50 we would need a compensation power of 1.50 in order to provide an adequate fit with no over refraction. For a BCR of 7.67 we would need a compensation power of 2.50 in order to provide an adequate fit with no over refraction.
Which of the following muscles are the main innovators of the upper lip? (SELECT 2)
A.B. Orbicularis oris presses the lips, mentalis depresses the lower lip as well as wrinkles the chin
A.B. Orbicularis oris presses the lips, mentalis depresses the lower lip as well as wrinkles the chin
All of the following are false regarding trachoma EXCEPT:
A. Trachoma is a disease of the eye caused by infection with the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis.
A. Trachoma is a disease of the eye caused by infection with the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis.
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding Hyaline Degeneration?
A. Hyaline degeneration occurs when smooth muscle is replaced by fibrous connective tissue and is the most common form of degeneration in leiomyomas. Patients do not present with uveitis, glaucoma, and keratitis when hyaline degeneration occurs.
A. Hyaline degeneration occurs when smooth muscle is replaced by fibrous connective tissue and is the most common form of degeneration in leiomyomas. Patients do not present with uveitis, glaucoma, and keratitis when hyaline degeneration occurs.
By weight blood is mostly composed of
B. Plasma. The blood that runs through the veins, arteries, and capillaries is known as whole blood, a mixture of about 55 percent plasma and 45 percent blood cells
B. Plasma. The blood that runs through the veins, arteries, and capillaries is known as whole blood, a mixture of about 55 percent plasma and 45 percent blood cells
What agent is used to treat choroidal neovascularization in ARMD?
D. verteporfin is used for injection with diode laser to treat CNVM caused by ARMD
D. verteporfin is used for injection with diode laser to treat CNVM caused by ARMD
What portion of the LGN is responsible for interpretation and identification of direction, velocity, motion integration, and figure ground segregation?
A. Middle temporal cortex. The inferotemporal cortex, also known as the ventral pathway, allows for identification of the object and recondition, visual attention, and constancy. The frontal eye field is partially responsible for saccades as well as the superior colliculus.
A. Middle temporal cortex. The inferotemporal cortex, also known as the ventral pathway, allows for identification of the object and recondition, visual attention, and constancy. The frontal eye field is partially responsible for saccades as well as the superior colliculus.
Myopia, hyperopia, and astigmatism are considered what radial order using zernike polynomials?
B. second order
B. second order
Which muscles separate the anterior and posterior triangles?
A. Sternocleidomastoid muscle
A. Sternocleidomastoid muscle
You hand neutralize a lens and find no motion while using a +3.00 D trial lens with up and down motion. The you find no motion while suing a +5.00 D trial lens with side to side motion. What is the neutralizing power of the lens?
D. -3.00-2.00×090
D. -3.00-2.00×090
The vitreous makes up primarily how much of the total volume of the eye?
D. The vitreous makes up 80% of the total volume of the eye. The total amount is 4mL
D. The vitreous makes up 80% of the total volume of the eye. The total amount is 4mL
When light travels from a smaller index material to a higher index material, what happens to the vergence of the light?
B. Light always bends towards the higher index
B. Light always bends towards the higher index
Which of the following schematic eyes has a two surface lens?
D. Gullstrand 2 is also known as the exact eye model. This means there are 6 refractive areas 2 of which are lens surfaces
D. Gullstrand 2 is also known as the exact eye model. This means there are 6 refractive areas 2 of which are lens surfaces
The following are the results for the DEM test: vertical =+1.03 and horizontal is -2.00. Which of the following is the MOST probable diagnosis?
A. Saccadic dysfunction. DEM test results indicated 4 different types of responses. Type 1 Essentially normal performance in Horizontal Time, Vertical Time, and Ratio. Type 2 Characterized as abnormally increased time to complete the Horizontal Test in the presence of normal performance on the Vertical Test. The Ratio would be abnormally high in this case. Type II behavior is characteristic of oculomotor dysfunction. Type 3 Typified as an abnormal increase in both the Horizontal Test and Vertical Test times, but with a normal Ratio. In the presence of a normal Ratio, the Horizontal Test time is influenced and increased because of an abnormal baseline. This represents a case of difficulty in automaticity in number calling skills, not an ocular motility deficit. Type 4 Increased Horizontal and Vertical Test times, and an abnormally high Ratio. This case is a combination of Type II and Type III behavior patterns. There are deficiencies in automaticity/oculomotor skills.
A. Saccadic dysfunction. DEM test results indicated 4 different types of responses. Type 1 Essentially normal performance in Horizontal Time, Vertical Time, and Ratio. Type 2 Characterized as abnormally increased time to complete the Horizontal Test in the presence of normal performance on the Vertical Test. The Ratio would be abnormally high in this case. Type II behavior is characteristic of oculomotor dysfunction. Type 3 Typified as an abnormal increase in both the Horizontal Test and Vertical Test times, but with a normal Ratio. In the presence of a normal Ratio, the Horizontal Test time is influenced and increased because of an abnormal baseline. This represents a case of difficulty in automaticity in number calling skills, not an ocular motility deficit. Type 4 Increased Horizontal and Vertical Test times, and an abnormally high Ratio. This case is a combination of Type II and Type III behavior patterns. There are deficiencies in automaticity/oculomotor skills.
The benefit obtained by administering asthma drugs through the lung is that?
A. Systemic absorption of a drug is decreased when the drug is applied to the specific location of need. In this case systemic absorption is low when the drug is presented in inhalation form.
A. Systemic absorption of a drug is decreased when the drug is applied to the specific location of need. In this case systemic absorption is low when the drug is presented in inhalation form.
Which of the following drugs are used in the diagnosis of adie’s tonic
C. Pilocarpine 0.1% is better than 1%. Typically we use 0.125%. Cocaine is used in diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome
C. Pilocarpine 0.1% is better than 1%. Typically we use 0.125%. Cocaine is used in diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome
Which of the following systemic syndromes is not associated with HLA-B27?
C. Behcet’s disease has no connection with the HLA b27 gene. Remember the UCRAP acronym to describe the HLA B27
C. Behcet’s disease has no connection with the HLA b27 gene. Remember the UCRAP acronym to describe the HLA B27
Which of the following is NOT true regarding Staphyloma of the Sclera?
D. Rapid neovascularization is present. Staphyloma of sclera present with no neovascularization. The sclera is avascular.
D. Rapid neovascularization is present. Staphyloma of sclera present with no neovascularization. The sclera is avascular.
What must the CD4 count be in order for a patent to be susceptible with Cytomegalovirus?
B. CD4 counts below 50 indicates a diagnosis of AIDS and those with a weakened immune system have a higher likelihood to contract cytomegalovirus.
B. CD4 counts below 50 indicates a diagnosis of AIDS and those with a weakened immune system have a higher likelihood to contract cytomegalovirus.
Which of the following will not cause corneal verticillata?
D. Autosomal dominant skin condition. Corneal verticillata can be caused by chloroquine, hydroxychloroquine, amiodarone ( RA drug), Indomethacin, Tamoxifen, Rho kinase inhibitors, and fabry’s disease.
D. Autosomal dominant skin condition. Corneal verticillata can be caused by chloroquine, hydroxychloroquine, amiodarone ( RA drug), Indomethacin, Tamoxifen, Rho kinase inhibitors, and fabry’s disease.
Which of the following is the worst route of administration for a drug that is poorly absorbed or unstable in the acidic environment of the stomach?
F. oral only one that undergoes first pass metabolism and passes through acidic stomach environment
F. oral only one that undergoes first pass metabolism and passes through acidic stomach environment
What of the following would MOST benefit a patient with a high astigmatism?
C. Long pass filter. Long pass filters transmit only long wavelengths that result in only allowing transmission of “glare” causing wavelengths. AR coating mimics long pass filters
C. Long pass filter. Long pass filters transmit only long wavelengths that result in only allowing transmission of “glare” causing wavelengths. AR coating mimics long pass filters
A divergent neuronal circuit is defined as one in which?
B. A neural circuit is a group of neurons in which impulse is affected at the same time usually in the same direction. Convergent means many neurons send a signal to one nerve. Divergent means one nerve sends a signal to several nerves.
B. A neural circuit is a group of neurons in which impulse is affected at the same time usually in the same direction. Convergent means many neurons send a signal to one nerve. Divergent means one nerve sends a signal to several nerves.
Which area of the optic nerve head does the superior temporal retinal fibers go through?
C. superior wedge. The temporal third contains the papillomacular bundle
C. superior wedge. The temporal third contains the papillomacular bundle
Lucy solves a chemistry problem by systematically testing several hypotheses. She is at which stage of cognitive development, according to Piaget?
C. Formal operations. During this stage the individual becomes able to handle problems involving abstract ideas and to reason logically.
C. Formal operations. During this stage the individual becomes able to handle problems involving abstract ideas and to reason logically.
Pupillary membrane remnants are found in the
D. Iris collarette. The anterior vascular is formed before the membrane. The membrane contributes to the minor circle not the major circle. The pupillary rugg is epithelial tissue
D. Iris collarette. The anterior vascular is formed before the membrane. The membrane contributes to the minor circle not the major circle. The pupillary rugg is epithelial tissue
Induction and production of specific antibodies occur in response to?
B. Antigens are substances that cause the body to make an immune response against that substance. Antibody is a blood protein produced in response to and counteracting a specific antigen.
B. Antigens are substances that cause the body to make an immune response against that substance. Antibody is a blood protein produced in response to and counteracting a specific antigen.
All of the following would differentiate between megalocornea and buphthalmos EXCEPT?
C. length of vitreous. Megalocornea is a rare developmental defect characterized by nonprogressive, usually symmetric, bilateral enlargement of the diameter of the cornea ≥13 mm. Buphthalmos is used to describe the visible enlargement of the eyeball detected at birth or soon after, due to any uncontrolled glaucoma in early childhood.
C. length of vitreous. Megalocornea is a rare developmental defect characterized by nonprogressive, usually symmetric, bilateral enlargement of the diameter of the cornea ≥13 mm. Buphthalmos is used to describe the visible enlargement of the eyeball detected at birth or soon after, due to any uncontrolled glaucoma in early childhood.
Which of the following shortens length when neural innervation occurs?
E. the I band is the only part of the muscle sarcomere that shortens when neural innervation occurs on the muscle. A is the Z line; B is the M line ; C: is the Z-line ; D is the actin filament; F is the A band
E. the I band is the only part of the muscle sarcomere that shortens when neural innervation occurs on the muscle. A is the Z line; B is the M line ; C: is the Z-line ; D is the actin filament; F is the A band
What area of the lens has the highest index of refraction?
C. the Embryonic nucleus has the highest index of refraction. The lowest index of refraction is the outer cortex layer. The further deep you get into the lens the higher the index of refraction
C. the Embryonic nucleus has the highest index of refraction. The lowest index of refraction is the outer cortex layer. The further deep you get into the lens the higher the index of refraction
Rescue agents basically behave as?
B. bronchodilator. Bronchodilators are medications that usually come in inhalers — they relax the muscles around your airways. This can help relieve coughing and shortness of breath and make breathing easier
B. bronchodilator. Bronchodilators are medications that usually come in inhalers — they relax the muscles around your airways. This can help relieve coughing and shortness of breath and make breathing easier
What laser is used to reshape the cornea in LASIK?
C. Excimer laser is used to reshape the cornea thus resulting in correction of refractive error. Femtosecond laser is used to create the flap in LASIK
C. Excimer laser is used to reshape the cornea thus resulting in correction of refractive error. Femtosecond laser is used to create the flap in LASIK
Which of the following is the discussed likely secondary mechanism of damage in primary open angle glaucoma?
B. Glutamate cytotoxicity. Glaucoma is a disease of pressure irregulation leading to retinal necrosis. Glutamate is the eye’s excitatory neurotransmitter. As pressure on these nerves increases it will tend to over compensate for the lack of the signal transduction that occurs. Thus excess release of glutamate is a secondary issue that can cause damage to the nerves causing a glaucoma like damage.
B. Glutamate cytotoxicity. Glaucoma is a disease of pressure irregulation leading to retinal necrosis. Glutamate is the eye’s excitatory neurotransmitter. As pressure on these nerves increases it will tend to over compensate for the lack of the signal transduction that occurs. Thus excess release of glutamate is a secondary issue that can cause damage to the nerves causing a glaucoma like damage.
What tissue has the biggest rate of blood flow?
C. Choroid. Choroidal blood flow is 10 times higher than the retina. However oxygen flow is low in this area
C. Choroid. Choroidal blood flow is 10 times higher than the retina. However oxygen flow is low in this area
What embryonic layer does orbital muscles come from?
D. Mesenchyme. This layer only does bones and muscles of the orbital region
D. Mesenchyme. This layer only does bones and muscles of the orbital region
The peripheral curve radius can be measured with:
A. Toposcope
A. Toposcope
What part of the cornea is considered hydrophilic?
C. stroma is highly hydrophilic. Epithelium is hydrophobic but lipophilic
C. stroma is highly hydrophilic. Epithelium is hydrophobic but lipophilic
Muscle and nervous tissue share which of the following pair of characteristics?
B. Conductivity and excitability. Like neurons, muscle is an excitable tissue, in that it can conduct or transmit electrical impulses (respond to stimuli)
B. Conductivity and excitability. Like neurons, muscle is an excitable tissue, in that it can conduct or transmit electrical impulses (respond to stimuli)
What is the primary antioxidative agent found in the lens of the eye?
B. glutathione is the primary protector against oxidative damage in the lens. Ascorbic acid also helps to protect the lens from oxidative damages but is not the main preventor of oxidative damage.
B. glutathione is the primary protector against oxidative damage in the lens. Ascorbic acid also helps to protect the lens from oxidative damages but is not the main preventor of oxidative damage.
Which cycloplegic drop is known to have hypersensitivity reactions in patients with allergies to sulfa?
B. Phenylephrine.
There are no absolute contraindications to phenylephrine aside from hypersensitivity to the drug or any of its components. Phenylephrine contains sodium metabisulfite, a sulfite that may cause allergic-type reactions, including anaphylactic symptoms or less severe asthmatic episodes in susceptible people.
B. Phenylephrine.
There are no absolute contraindications to phenylephrine aside from hypersensitivity to the drug or any of its components. Phenylephrine contains sodium metabisulfite, a sulfite that may cause allergic-type reactions, including anaphylactic symptoms or less severe asthmatic episodes in susceptible people.
Which catecholamine produces vasodilation at low doses and vasoconstriction at high doses?
B. epinephrine
B. epinephrine
Physiologically, NVI and NVD are broken blood vessels caused by damage to what?
A. Pericytes. NVI is directly caused by diabetes which attacks pericytes on the short posterior ciliary arteries located in the inner nuclear layer which stops the autoregulation of the arteries and leads to retinal ischemia. Due to the newfound retinal ischemia, the RPE releases VEGF to create new blood vessel formation, otherwise known as neovascularization.
A. Pericytes. NVI is directly caused by diabetes which attacks pericytes on the short posterior ciliary arteries located in the inner nuclear layer which stops the autoregulation of the arteries and leads to retinal ischemia. Due to the newfound retinal ischemia, the RPE releases VEGF to create new blood vessel formation, otherwise known as neovascularization.
Which of the following drugs is a mast cell stabilizer?
A. Cromolyn sodium. Montelukast is an antileukotriene drug. Albuterol is a short acting beta blocker. Zileuton is a Antileukotriene
A. Cromolyn sodium. Montelukast is an antileukotriene drug. Albuterol is a short acting beta blocker. Zileuton is a Antileukotriene
What is the rate in which the lens thickens per year?
C. 0.02mm per year
C. 0.02mm per year
The brain, dural venous sinuses, cavernous sinus all drain into which of the following?
A. Internal jugular vein
A. Internal jugular vein
A patient has a minimum angle of resolution at far and near of 3 feet, what is this patients VA at 40 cm?
B. 1.2 M ; 3’=M/0.4
B. 1.2 M ; 3’=M/0.4
What Skeletal muscle which surrounds the testes and functions to pull the testes closer to the body when cold temperatures are present?
D. Each cremaster muscle surrounds one of the testicles and its spermatic cord. The muscle helps to move the testicle toward and away from the body to maintain the ideal temperature for sperm production. This is why the scrotum hangs lower in warm conditions and closer to the body in cold weather.
D. Each cremaster muscle surrounds one of the testicles and its spermatic cord. The muscle helps to move the testicle toward and away from the body to maintain the ideal temperature for sperm production. This is why the scrotum hangs lower in warm conditions and closer to the body in cold weather.
Lactoferrin is a component of the secretion in what gland?
D. lacrimal. Proteins are present in the lacrimal gland in addition to immunoglobulins, electrolytes, and water. Goblet cells secrete mucus. Zeis and meibomian secrete sebum or cholesterol
D. lacrimal. Proteins are present in the lacrimal gland in addition to immunoglobulins, electrolytes, and water. Goblet cells secrete mucus. Zeis and meibomian secrete sebum or cholesterol
Which of the following factors affect drug bioavailability?
E. All of the above.
E. All of the above.
According to James Marcia, which identity status is characterized by both crisis and commitment?
A. Identity achievement. Foreclosure is a psychological term that describes one of the key steps young people experience in the process of finding a sense of self. Diffusion lack of stability or focus in the view of the self or in any of the elements of an individual’s identity.
A. Identity achievement. Foreclosure is a psychological term that describes one of the key steps young people experience in the process of finding a sense of self. Diffusion lack of stability or focus in the view of the self or in any of the elements of an individual’s identity.
Plano patient stares at an object located at optical infinity. What is the dioptric power of the cornea in this patient?
D. 40. The eye total has 60 Diopters of power. Cornea contributes 40D, and the lens contributes 20D.
D. 40. The eye total has 60 Diopters of power. Cornea contributes 40D, and the lens contributes 20D.
Which two aberrations are the most significant aberrations of the emmetropic human eye? (SELECT 2)
A and D.
A and D.
The facial artery is a branch of?
B. External carotid artery
B. External carotid artery
What is typically the MOST common area in which an aneurysm can occur?
A. Abdominal aorta is one of the most common sites of aneurysms next to the iliac and large arteries that flow into the heart
A. Abdominal aorta is one of the most common sites of aneurysms next to the iliac and large arteries that flow into the heart
What test is adequate enough to evaluate the health of nasociliary nerves ability to initiate a response to a stimulus?
A. The cotton swab test is used to evaluate corneal sensitivity, specifically cranial nerve V1, the nasociliary branch off of the ophthalmic nerve.
A. The cotton swab test is used to evaluate corneal sensitivity, specifically cranial nerve V1, the nasociliary branch off of the ophthalmic nerve.
When your patient is doing dextroversion, which one of the following explains sherrington’s law of innervation
B. Sherrington’s law of innervation is concerned with the contraction and relaxation of the muscles in the same eye. Hering’s law is the muscle innervation between 2 eyes. Remember sherring the same eye.
B. Sherrington’s law of innervation is concerned with the contraction and relaxation of the muscles in the same eye. Hering’s law is the muscle innervation between 2 eyes. Remember sherring the same eye.
Which of the following is not an non-infectious cause of episcleritis?
D. The question is asking what is an infectious cause of episcleritis. Anything granulomatosis automatically means infectious with the exception of sarcoidosis.
D. The question is asking what is an infectious cause of episcleritis. Anything granulomatosis automatically means infectious with the exception of sarcoidosis.
When a patient is put under anesthesia, what happens to the pupils?
B. They become miotic due to supranuclear input reduction causing an increase in Edinger Westphal activity. Remember that the Edinger-Westphal nucleus is involved in pupillary constriction with the light response, a parasympathetic effect.
B. They become miotic due to supranuclear input reduction causing an increase in Edinger Westphal activity. Remember that the Edinger-Westphal nucleus is involved in pupillary constriction with the light response, a parasympathetic effect.
Which hormones are found to be deficient in production in patients with hypothyroidism?
C. T4. T4 also known as triiodothyronine is found to be in decreased numbers when testing in patients with hypothyroidism. Elevated TSH are found also in hypothyroidism patients
C. T4. T4 also known as triiodothyronine is found to be in decreased numbers when testing in patients with hypothyroidism. Elevated TSH are found also in hypothyroidism patients
Inadequate exhalation of carbon dioxide can cause what?
A. Metabolic acidosis. This gas (carbon dioxide} must be eliminated from the body through exhalation. Inadequate exhalation of this gas will cause its accumulation. When carbon dioxide concentration in the blood increases, it causes the blood to be acidic, lowering its pH.
A. Metabolic acidosis. This gas (carbon dioxide} must be eliminated from the body through exhalation. Inadequate exhalation of this gas will cause its accumulation. When carbon dioxide concentration in the blood increases, it causes the blood to be acidic, lowering its pH.
A patient can read the line labeled 1.5M at 40 cm. What is the equivalent Snellen Acuity. (SELECT 4)
A.B.C.D 1.5/4=3.75 =x/20->20/75 ; 20/75=6/x
A.B.C.D 1.5/4=3.75 =x/20->20/75 ; 20/75=6/x
Scopolamine is a common drug for motion sickness. From the following list, select 2 side-effects of Scopolamine.
A.E. Scopolamine crosses the blood brain barrier which causes sedation. Scopolamine is also a Cholinergic antagonist and will stop AcH, and decrease a patient Blood pressure.
A.E. Scopolamine crosses the blood brain barrier which causes sedation. Scopolamine is also a Cholinergic antagonist and will stop AcH, and decrease a patient Blood pressure.
What is the most common side effect of netarsudil?
A. Redness of the conjunctiva is the most commonly reported side effect of netarsudil AKA Rhopressa. This is due to the fact that there are rho kinase receptors found on blood vessels. Rhopressa is an inhibitor of rho kinase which causes vasodilation of the blood vessels.
A. Redness of the conjunctiva is the most commonly reported side effect of netarsudil AKA Rhopressa. This is due to the fact that there are rho kinase receptors found on blood vessels. Rhopressa is an inhibitor of rho kinase which causes vasodilation of the blood vessels.
Which purkinje image is used for keratometry readings?
B. Purkinje image 1 is a direct result of reflection from the anterior corneal surface. When we do keratometry we are measuring the shape of the anterior cornea to see how to fit a RGP properly on that surface.
B. Purkinje image 1 is a direct result of reflection from the anterior corneal surface. When we do keratometry we are measuring the shape of the anterior cornea to see how to fit a RGP properly on that surface.
The orbital bones originate from what embryonic layer?
B. Mesenchyme.
B. Mesenchyme.
What is the main cation found intracellularly?
C. Potassium is the main intracellular cation found. Sodium is the main cation found extracellularly
C. Potassium is the main intracellular cation found. Sodium is the main cation found extracellularly
What is the nominal magnification of a 3 inch focal length lens?
A. 3.28X ; 3in(0.0254/1in)=0.0762 m; (1/0.0762m)= (13.12/4) = 3.28X
A. 3.28X ; 3in(0.0254/1in)=0.0762 m; (1/0.0762m)= (13.12/4) = 3.28X
According to Snell’s Law, if light enters a material from air at 25 deg, what will be the new angle of refraction, if the material has an index of 1.53?
C. 16 deg. We can solve this without any sin inverse or calculator. When light hits an object with a higher index of refraction the light is going to bend more creating less of a degree. 16 is the only number that is smaller than 25. Keeping this theory in mind will help you solve any problem like this.
C. 16 deg. We can solve this without any sin inverse or calculator. When light hits an object with a higher index of refraction the light is going to bend more creating less of a degree. 16 is the only number that is smaller than 25. Keeping this theory in mind will help you solve any problem like this.
A lesion above the left side of the medulla will lead to what problems with motor control?
A. A lesion above the medulla will lead to problems with motor control on the contralateral side of the upper body not the upper face. The facial muscles are controlled by the facial nerve found in the upper brain
A. A lesion above the medulla will lead to problems with motor control on the contralateral side of the upper body not the upper face. The facial muscles are controlled by the facial nerve found in the upper brain
Which of the following makes up the internal capsule in the forebrain?
A. Pyramidal motor cell axons come together and form the internal capsule. These fibers then move through the cerebral peduncles, pons and medulla to from the medulla pyramids
A. Pyramidal motor cell axons come together and form the internal capsule. These fibers then move through the cerebral peduncles, pons and medulla to from the medulla pyramids
What pathway carries pain and temperature information from the body?
B. anterolateral system AKA spinothalamic pathway carries pain and temperature information from the body. Trigeminothalamic pathway carries pain and temperature information from the face.
B. anterolateral system AKA spinothalamic pathway carries pain and temperature information from the body. Trigeminothalamic pathway carries pain and temperature information from the face.
Which of the following glands is only innervated directly by preganglionic sympathetic fibers?
C. Adrenal glands are the only directly innervated gland by the preganglionic sympathetic
C. Adrenal glands are the only directly innervated gland by the preganglionic sympathetic
Which organism is responsible for causing a positive venereal disease research laboratory test?
D. Treponema pallidum is the organism responsible for causing syphilis and is detected using a venereal disease research laboratory testing. Toxoplasma gondii is tested using IgG immunological testing. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is found by a simple urine test and may be detected with a Thayer-Martin chocolate agar stain.
D. Treponema pallidum is the organism responsible for causing syphilis and is detected using a venereal disease research laboratory testing. Toxoplasma gondii is tested using IgG immunological testing. Neisseria gonorrhoeae is found by a simple urine test and may be detected with a Thayer-Martin chocolate agar stain.
Which of the following LGN layers is located between each of the 6 layers of the LGN?
C. Koniocellular layers are located between each of the 6 layers throughout the LGN. The magnocellular layers are layers 1 and 2 on the ventral side of the LGN. Parvocellular layers are 3,4,5,6 on the dorsal side of the LGN.
C. Koniocellular layers are located between each of the 6 layers throughout the LGN. The magnocellular layers are layers 1 and 2 on the ventral side of the LGN. Parvocellular layers are 3,4,5,6 on the dorsal side of the LGN.
Second generation antihistamine differ from the classic (1st generation) antihistamines in that the second one
D. Second generation antihistamine do not have drowsiness effects. First generation cross the Blood brain barrier and cause drowsiness because of this.
D. Second generation antihistamine do not have drowsiness effects. First generation cross the Blood brain barrier and cause drowsiness because of this.
What muscle causes vertical furrows between the eyebrows?
C. corrugator. Corrugators think concentration. Frontalis is the primary elevator of the eyebrows. Orbicularis is the primary depressor of the eyelids. Procerus elevates the nose
C. corrugator. Corrugators think concentration. Frontalis is the primary elevator of the eyebrows. Orbicularis is the primary depressor of the eyelids. Procerus elevates the nose
In the Oculo-parasympathetic pathway, after the nerve fibers leave the ciliary ganglion, through what nerves do they enter the globe?
C. SPCN’s
C. SPCN’s
Which two aberrations are considered when designing an ophthalmic lens? (SELECT 2)
A and C
A and C
Which wave of the ERG represents the muller cells in the retina?
B. B waves measure the activity of bipolar and muller cells. A wave measures photoreceptor activity. C wave measures RPE activity. Remember that an EOG can also be used to measure function of the RPE.
B. B waves measure the activity of bipolar and muller cells. A wave measures photoreceptor activity. C wave measures RPE activity. Remember that an EOG can also be used to measure function of the RPE.
A patient with a 35PD exotropia deviation has surgical correction. Afterwards, they are neutralized at 1PD exotropia with the unilateral cover test. What will the result be on W4DOT?
B. Uncrossed diplopia. Atypical UHARC paradoxical type 1: Pt will have opposite objective and subjective results
B. Uncrossed diplopia. Atypical UHARC paradoxical type 1: Pt will have opposite objective and subjective results
Which of the following has the greatest effect on flattening a contact lens?
D. Decrease the OAD and increase the BC. Imagine the contact lens like a suction cup. The taller the cup the more it will not move and vice versa. In order to decrease the “height” of the suction cup and make it flatter we must cut or decrease the diameter. Increasing the BC can also cause the contact lens to be flatten.
D. Decrease the OAD and increase the BC. Imagine the contact lens like a suction cup. The taller the cup the more it will not move and vice versa. In order to decrease the “height” of the suction cup and make it flatter we must cut or decrease the diameter. Increasing the BC can also cause the contact lens to be flatten.
Which of the following are not a function of the ciliary body?
D. The ciliary body is the main producer and minor drainer of the human eye in addition to helping with the accommodation.
D. The ciliary body is the main producer and minor drainer of the human eye in addition to helping with the accommodation.
Regarding indocyanine green ophthalmic dye, which of the following are true? (SELECT 3)
A,E,F
A,E,F
The major elevation- vertical movement in abduction for the left eye is the result of contraction of the
A. Left superior rectus. Superior rectus primary action is elevation secondary action of INcyclo and tertiary action of ADDuction. When the patient is looking towards their left (abduction) you are solely isolating the elevator muscle to cause elevation with no help from secondary action muscles. Thus Left superior rectus is the correct answer. For a visualization draw a Parks 3 step diagram and look at what muscle is isolated for elevation
A. Left superior rectus. Superior rectus primary action is elevation secondary action of INcyclo and tertiary action of ADDuction. When the patient is looking towards their left (abduction) you are solely isolating the elevator muscle to cause elevation with no help from secondary action muscles. Thus Left superior rectus is the correct answer. For a visualization draw a Parks 3 step diagram and look at what muscle is isolated for elevation
An argon laser emits light of power 16 watts in 2 sec. The beam area size is 0.5 square cm. Beam divergence is 2 mrad the beam diameter is 3 mm. What is the irradiance emitted by the laser?
C. 16/0.5 = 32
C. 16/0.5 = 32
Which of the following bacteria is considered gram negative cocci?
B. H influenzae is the only gram negative coccobacilli on our outline. Staphylococcus is a gram positive cocci. Listeria is a gram positive bacilli.
B. H influenzae is the only gram negative coccobacilli on our outline. Staphylococcus is a gram positive cocci. Listeria is a gram positive bacilli.
Goldmann tonometry is based on the Imbert fick law and treats all corneas to have an average thickness of 520um. What is the Imbert Fick Law?
B. Pressure inside is set to a infinite thin and covered by thin membrane is equal to the force necessary to flatten the sphere of the corneal shape
B. Pressure inside is set to a infinite thin and covered by thin membrane is equal to the force necessary to flatten the sphere of the corneal shape
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of Rieger Anomaly?
A, Dental abnormalities. Rieger’s syndrome is an autosomal-dominant disorder associated with malformation of the iris, pupillary anomalies, and hypoplasia of the teeth, with or without maxillary hypoplasia. A large family in which multiple individuals had both Rieger’s syndrome and IGHD. Rieger’s anomaly does not have dental abnormalities. Once dental is involved then it upgrades to syndrome.
A, Dental abnormalities. Rieger’s syndrome is an autosomal-dominant disorder associated with malformation of the iris, pupillary anomalies, and hypoplasia of the teeth, with or without maxillary hypoplasia. A large family in which multiple individuals had both Rieger’s syndrome and IGHD. Rieger’s anomaly does not have dental abnormalities. Once dental is involved then it upgrades to syndrome.
All of the following are true regarding parinaud oculoglandular syndrome EXCEPT
B. Parinaud oculoglandular syndrome has no particular environment in which it thrives. Parinaud Oculoglandular Syndrome is a conjunctival disease characterized by a unilateral granulomatous follicular conjunctivitis associated with ipsilateral regional lymphadenopathy. There are many vectors that transmit organisms that cause oculoglandular syndrome, of which, Cat Scratch Disease is the most common cause.
B. Parinaud oculoglandular syndrome has no particular environment in which it thrives. Parinaud Oculoglandular Syndrome is a conjunctival disease characterized by a unilateral granulomatous follicular conjunctivitis associated with ipsilateral regional lymphadenopathy. There are many vectors that transmit organisms that cause oculoglandular syndrome, of which, Cat Scratch Disease is the most common cause.
An indirect acting adrenergic agonist is what?
E. direct agonist act on the muscle. Cholinergic fibers release acetylcholine
E. direct agonist act on the muscle. Cholinergic fibers release acetylcholine
Liquefactive necrosis is characteristic of which type of disease process?
B. Fungal infection. Viral, bacteral, and mycoplasma infection are considered non necrosis. Fungal infections are harder to get rid of and thus cause more damage to localized areas of infection, AKA liquefactive necrosis.
B. Fungal infection. Viral, bacteral, and mycoplasma infection are considered non necrosis. Fungal infections are harder to get rid of and thus cause more damage to localized areas of infection, AKA liquefactive necrosis.
All of the following are diagnostic tests for glaucoma EXCEPT for:
D. Near visual acuity. Standard of care for glaucoma testing is goldmann tonometry for IOP, Humphrey visual field for any nerve damage analysis, Pachymetry in order to accurately adjust the IOP readings, Gonioscopy for determining if its closed angle or open angle glaucoma.
D. Near visual acuity. Standard of care for glaucoma testing is goldmann tonometry for IOP, Humphrey visual field for any nerve damage analysis, Pachymetry in order to accurately adjust the IOP readings, Gonioscopy for determining if its closed angle or open angle glaucoma.
A frame has the following dimensions: A= b/ mm B=48 mm C=50 mm DBC=-67 mm Seg drop= 7 mm. What is the segment height?
a. 17mm. Seg height= 0.5(A)- seg drop
a. 17mm. Seg height= 0.5(A)- seg drop
Which of the following is not associated with krukenberg spindles?
D. Anterior capsular stars have no association with krukenberg spindles. Lens cataracts can push on the iris and can be a secondary cause of krukenberg spindles. The most common cause is lens zonules rubbing against the back of the iris releasing pigment causing those spindles to form.
D. Anterior capsular stars have no association with krukenberg spindles. Lens cataracts can push on the iris and can be a secondary cause of krukenberg spindles. The most common cause is lens zonules rubbing against the back of the iris releasing pigment causing those spindles to form.
Which of the following drugs are contraindicated in patients with extra chromosome 21?
A. Atropine is contraindicated in Down Syndrome patients. The MOA effect on down syndrome patients is unknown. Phenylephrine is contraindicated in anyone with blood pressure issues, betaxolol is contraindicated in patients with asthma. Pilocarpine is contraindicated in anyone with a retinal detachment or high hyperopes.
A. Atropine is contraindicated in Down Syndrome patients. The MOA effect on down syndrome patients is unknown. Phenylephrine is contraindicated in anyone with blood pressure issues, betaxolol is contraindicated in patients with asthma. Pilocarpine is contraindicated in anyone with a retinal detachment or high hyperopes.
What mineral is vital to maintain proper function of the thyroid?
A. Iodine. Iodine was put into salt in 1924 to help prevent thyroid deficiency.
A. Iodine. Iodine was put into salt in 1924 to help prevent thyroid deficiency.
All of the following can cause poor vision in an RGP wearer except:
C. poor wetting provides uncomfortable fit for the patient but has minimal effect on vision compared to the other choices
C. poor wetting provides uncomfortable fit for the patient but has minimal effect on vision compared to the other choices
An agent known to be effective against a wide variety of microbial species is defined as?
C. Broad spectrum.
C. Broad spectrum.
Which of the following aberrations is used as part of the refraction in visual exam?
A. Chromatic aberration.
A. Chromatic aberration.
Which of the following is true of keratoconus?
C. kayser fleischer ring is indicative of keratoconus
C. kayser fleischer ring is indicative of keratoconus
Resting tremor is a sign of
B. Parkinson’s disease key symptom is resting tremors
B. Parkinson’s disease key symptom is resting tremors
What is the main stimulator for mucous secretions in the conjunctival epithelium?
B. parasympathetic nerve endings surround goblet cells and cause increase in mucous secretions
B. parasympathetic nerve endings surround goblet cells and cause increase in mucous secretions
The initial origin of the hormonal changes that cause puberty is from the _____________ gland.
B. hypothalamus. Puberty’s trigger lies in a small part of the brain called the hypothalamus, a gland that secretes gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
B. hypothalamus. Puberty’s trigger lies in a small part of the brain called the hypothalamus, a gland that secretes gonadotropin-releasing hormone.
What is the main cause of Wernicke-Korsakoff syndrome?
B. Alcoholism. Wernicke- Korsakoff syndrome is a direct cause of a lack of thiamine deficiency caused by alcoholism. Please note thiamine may also be referred to as Vitamin B1 and results in a cecocentral visual field defect as damage of the papillomacular bundle results in bilateral temporal optic disc pallor.
B. Alcoholism. Wernicke- Korsakoff syndrome is a direct cause of a lack of thiamine deficiency caused by alcoholism. Please note thiamine may also be referred to as Vitamin B1 and results in a cecocentral visual field defect as damage of the papillomacular bundle results in bilateral temporal optic disc pallor.
Which of the following bones do not make up the medial wall of the orbital?
E. Together, the zygomatic bone makes up the lateral wall of the orbit with the greater wing of the sphenoid bone. Remember SMEL my medial wall → sphenoid, maxillary, ethmoid, lacrimal.
E. Together, the zygomatic bone makes up the lateral wall of the orbit with the greater wing of the sphenoid bone. Remember SMEL my medial wall → sphenoid, maxillary, ethmoid, lacrimal.
What tissue is the primary site for absorption of ocular pharmaceutical treatment?
A. Cornea absorbs 80% of drugs in the eye. 20% or more is usually lost to the lacrimal system.
A. Cornea absorbs 80% of drugs in the eye. 20% or more is usually lost to the lacrimal system.
Which of the following are not derived from the neural crest layer of the developing eye?
A. Everything to do with the iris muscles & epithelium and the retina is derived from the neural ectoderm → the neuroretina, RPE, neuroglia and anything involved with the optic nerve. Neural crest cells are involved with any structures that do not belong to the mesoderm, surface ectoderm or neural ectoderm → trabecular meshwork, iris and ciliary body, corneal stroma, corneal endothelium, Sclera, Choroid, Vitreous. Mesoderm involves muscles and mesenchyme (i.e. the endothelium of the blood vessels). Surface ectoderm includes the corneal epithelium, and all structures related to the lens and tears.
A. Everything to do with the iris muscles & epithelium and the retina is derived from the neural ectoderm → the neuroretina, RPE, neuroglia and anything involved with the optic nerve. Neural crest cells are involved with any structures that do not belong to the mesoderm, surface ectoderm or neural ectoderm → trabecular meshwork, iris and ciliary body, corneal stroma, corneal endothelium, Sclera, Choroid, Vitreous. Mesoderm involves muscles and mesenchyme (i.e. the endothelium of the blood vessels). Surface ectoderm includes the corneal epithelium, and all structures related to the lens and tears.
What stage of a macular hole will show a positive Watzke-Allen test result?
B. Stage 2. The roof develops a break and commences to develop a thickness macular hole. Watzke Allen test is positive when the slit beam is broken indicating where and how big the whole is.
B. Stage 2. The roof develops a break and commences to develop a thickness macular hole. Watzke Allen test is positive when the slit beam is broken indicating where and how big the whole is.
Which is the most common type of chemical bond in the body?
B. Hydrogen bonds are the most common chemical bond in the body. Covalent bonds are typically found in DNA. Van der Waals are found in organic liquids. Ionic bonds occur between metals.
B. Hydrogen bonds are the most common chemical bond in the body. Covalent bonds are typically found in DNA. Van der Waals are found in organic liquids. Ionic bonds occur between metals.
Which laser used for eye surgical procedure is considered the safest under the FDA classification of lasers?
E. Only one that is a class one laser and is USED in surgical procedures. He-ne is also class one but is not USED in surgical procedures.
E. Only one that is a class one laser and is USED in surgical procedures. He-ne is also class one but is not USED in surgical procedures.
The Optic radiations originates in what part of the brain?
D. LGN. They originate from the LGN. The Parietal lobe contains the optic radiations that control the inferior section of the optic nerve or the superior portion of vision. The temporal lobe contains the optic radiations that control the superior ection of the optic nerve or the inferior portion of vision. PITS
D. LGN. They originate from the LGN. The Parietal lobe contains the optic radiations that control the inferior section of the optic nerve or the superior portion of vision. The temporal lobe contains the optic radiations that control the superior ection of the optic nerve or the inferior portion of vision. PITS
What is the MOST common systemic condition that causes posterior uveitis?
A. Toxoplasmosis is more commonly found systematically than sarcoidosis. All options do cause posterior uveitis. Syphilis rarely causes posterior uveitis.
A. Toxoplasmosis is more commonly found systematically than sarcoidosis. All options do cause posterior uveitis. Syphilis rarely causes posterior uveitis.
Visual acuity presented by grating patterns in different orientations is described as?
A. VA is the ability to identify the highest spatial frequency grating orientation. Meaning only one person can resolve dark and light bars.
A. VA is the ability to identify the highest spatial frequency grating orientation. Meaning only one person can resolve dark and light bars.
Which of the following laboratory tests can be used to diagnose a suspect Syphilis patient?
B. FTAB-ABS and VDRL are test specifically for syphilis
B. FTAB-ABS and VDRL are test specifically for syphilis
What is the female equivalent to maturation and storage of reproductive chromosomes gametes found in male testes?
B. Ovaries are where female gametes are stored (eggs).
B. Ovaries are where female gametes are stored (eggs).
What part of the brain is considered the control center for vergences?
B. Midbrain. local circuit neurons located in the midbrain near the oculomotor nucleus. These neurons generate a burst of action potentials. The onset of the burst is the command to generate a vergence movement, and the frequency of the burst determines its velocity
B. Midbrain. local circuit neurons located in the midbrain near the oculomotor nucleus. These neurons generate a burst of action potentials. The onset of the burst is the command to generate a vergence movement, and the frequency of the burst determines its velocity
Which of the following are most associated with Nanophthalmos? (SELECT 2)
A,B. nanophthalmos is caused by fetal alcohol syndrome, mucopolysaccharidosis, myotonic dystrophy, achondroplasia
A,B. nanophthalmos is caused by fetal alcohol syndrome, mucopolysaccharidosis, myotonic dystrophy, achondroplasia
Psychological maturity depends on which of the following?
D. All of the above.
D. All of the above.
An argon laser emits light of power 16 watts in 2 sec. The beam area size is 0.5 square cm. Beam divergence is 2 mrad the beam diameter is 3 mm. what would the irradiance if the power emitted by the laser is 16 watts in 4 sec. assume that the beam divergence and the beam diameter are the same as above
B. Answer doesn’t change due to the equation. 16/0.5 = 32
B. Answer doesn’t change due to the equation. 16/0.5 = 32
What is the mode of action of pilocarpine?
B. pilocarpine causes contraction of the iris sphincter which opens up the aqueous outflow.
B. pilocarpine causes contraction of the iris sphincter which opens up the aqueous outflow.
What is the MOST common microorganism that causes glomerulonephritis?
A. Streptococcus Pyogenes. Remember this gram positive organism is beta-hemolytic meaning it has full hemolysis potential.It is classified as very opportunistic, breaking through the skin and secreing both endotoxins and exotoxins.
Staph aureus is the most common cause of blepharitis. Remember this organism is gram positive with features of being both catalase positive and coagulase positive. All other options are not microorganisms
Staphylococcus Epidermidis is the most common cause of postoperative endophthalmitis. Remember this organism is gram positive with features of being catalase positive but coagulase negative.
A. Streptococcus Pyogenes. Remember this gram positive organism is beta-hemolytic meaning it has full hemolysis potential.It is classified as very opportunistic, breaking through the skin and secreing both endotoxins and exotoxins.
Staph aureus is the most common cause of blepharitis. Remember this organism is gram positive with features of being both catalase positive and coagulase positive. All other options are not microorganisms
Staphylococcus Epidermidis is the most common cause of postoperative endophthalmitis. Remember this organism is gram positive with features of being catalase positive but coagulase negative.
A certain lens of index of 1.67 has a convex spherical front surface. The sag of the front surface is 1.2 mm for a chord whose length is 20 mm. What is the power of the front surface?
D. R=(10^2)/2(1.2) + (1.2/2) =42.27mm
D. R=(10^2)/2(1.2) + (1.2/2) =42.27mm
Which is the least likely to cause mental depression?
B. Carteolol is a weak non-selective beta blocker. Carteolol does not cross the Blood brain barrier and thus has the lowest chance of causing anything to go on with the chemical balance of the brain.
B. Carteolol is a weak non-selective beta blocker. Carteolol does not cross the Blood brain barrier and thus has the lowest chance of causing anything to go on with the chemical balance of the brain.
Angiotensin I,I in combination with the other mechanisms that regulate blood volume / blood pressure is expected to produce which of the following effects on the renal function?
C. In addition to these arteriolar actions, angiotensin II constricts the mesangial cells, an effect that tends to lower the GFR by decreasing the surface area available for filtration.
C. In addition to these arteriolar actions, angiotensin II constricts the mesangial cells, an effect that tends to lower the GFR by decreasing the surface area available for filtration.
Which of the following follows the jones and wobig lacrimal pump theory
B. Blinking occurs from lateral to medial canthus and helps to move tears towards the puncta. The puncta under open conditions collect the tears through capillary attraction method
B. Blinking occurs from lateral to medial canthus and helps to move tears towards the puncta. The puncta under open conditions collect the tears through capillary attraction method
Alpha adrenergic receptors have a high affinity for which of the following?
C. Epinephrine. Alpha adrenergic receptors are involved in neurotransmission and regulate the sympathetic nervous system through binding and activating the neurotransmitter, norepinephrine, and the neurohormone, epinephrine.
C. Epinephrine. Alpha adrenergic receptors are involved in neurotransmission and regulate the sympathetic nervous system through binding and activating the neurotransmitter, norepinephrine, and the neurohormone, epinephrine.
Which of the following are not considered signs of non exudative ARMD?
C. Exudates are a sign of Wet ARMD aka exudative ARMD. Submacular hemes are not located in the NFL because the macula does not possess the NFL layer. Drusens are indicative of dry ARMD AKA non exudative ARMD
C. Exudates are a sign of Wet ARMD aka exudative ARMD. Submacular hemes are not located in the NFL because the macula does not possess the NFL layer. Drusens are indicative of dry ARMD AKA non exudative ARMD
According to Marcia’s model, adolescents who experience crisis with no commitment are in the ___________ status of identity development.
B. moratorium. foreclosure is a psychological term that describes one of the key steps young people experience in the process of finding a sense of self. Diffusion lack of stability or focus in the view of the self or in any of the elements of an individual’s identity.
B. moratorium. foreclosure is a psychological term that describes one of the key steps young people experience in the process of finding a sense of self. Diffusion lack of stability or focus in the view of the self or in any of the elements of an individual’s identity.
What layer of the retina is said to be a demarcation line as well as the area where the lens placode develops from?
B. mesenchyme
B. mesenchyme
Liquefactive necrosis is characteristic of which type of disease process?
B. Although liquefactive necrosis can be caused by focal bacterial infection, it is very rare. More often than not fungal infections lead to liquefactive necrosis due to the rapid spreading of the spores within the body.
B. Although liquefactive necrosis can be caused by focal bacterial infection, it is very rare. More often than not fungal infections lead to liquefactive necrosis due to the rapid spreading of the spores within the body.
What artery supplies the frontal lobe of the brain?
E. Anterior cerebral and middle cerebral supplies the frontal lobe of the brain. Middle cerebral supplies blood to every part of the brain. The posterior cerebral supplies blood to the temporal and occipital lobes of the brain .
E. Anterior cerebral and middle cerebral supplies the frontal lobe of the brain. Middle cerebral supplies blood to every part of the brain. The posterior cerebral supplies blood to the temporal and occipital lobes of the brain .
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of alpha adrenergic blockers?
D. Hypertension. Hypertension is a side effect of adrenergic agonists because of vasoconstriction issues.
D. Hypertension. Hypertension is a side effect of adrenergic agonists because of vasoconstriction issues.
What part of the brain is Brodmann area 8 located in?
D. Frontal. Brodmann area 8 is the area involved in the management of uncertainty. Clinically if a patient comes in uncertain about everything and a saccadic defect. Then we can localize what area of the brain is affected.
D. Frontal. Brodmann area 8 is the area involved in the management of uncertainty. Clinically if a patient comes in uncertain about everything and a saccadic defect. Then we can localize what area of the brain is affected.
According to Piaget, adolescents are in which stage of cognitive development?
C. Formal operations. During this stage the individual becomes able to handle problems involving abstract ideas and to reason logically.
C. Formal operations. During this stage the individual becomes able to handle problems involving abstract ideas and to reason logically.
What percent of anisometropic amblyopes improves with best rx only?
C. 30% According to the Amblyopia treatment studies 30% of anisometropic amblyopes can be corrected by just Best rx only.
Chen AM, Cotter SA. The Amblyopia Treatment Studies: Implications for Clinical Practice. Adv Ophthalmol Optom. 2016 Aug;1(1):287-305. doi: 10.1016/j.yaoo.2016.03.007. PMID: 28435934; PMCID: PMC5396957.
C. 30% According to the Amblyopia treatment studies 30% of anisometropic amblyopes can be corrected by just Best rx only.
Chen AM, Cotter SA. The Amblyopia Treatment Studies: Implications for Clinical Practice. Adv Ophthalmol Optom. 2016 Aug;1(1):287-305. doi: 10.1016/j.yaoo.2016.03.007. PMID: 28435934; PMCID: PMC5396957.
When performing blood pressure measurements you noticed that the arm cuff is too loose on the patient while pumping it up. What happens to the readings when the cuff is too loose?
A. Artificially low. If the BP cuff is too tight you are already causing constriction of the blood flow before applying enough pressure for the cuff to read which would cause an artificially high reading. If the cuff is too loose the opposite happens
A. Artificially low. If the BP cuff is too tight you are already causing constriction of the blood flow before applying enough pressure for the cuff to read which would cause an artificially high reading. If the cuff is too loose the opposite happens
What do we measure for risley prisms for blur to break?
A. range of accommodative vergence. Blur is the first indication that accommodation has reached its max. When break occurs then accommodative vergence is broken thus indicating the end of accommodation.
A. range of accommodative vergence. Blur is the first indication that accommodation has reached its max. When break occurs then accommodative vergence is broken thus indicating the end of accommodation.