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Optometry Board Practice Test for the NBEO® Part 1 Test #2 – Pharmacology This test is comprised of 29 items, which must be completed within 29 minutes. |
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If peptic ulcer disease is diagnosed in a pregnant woman, then which of the following antisecretory agent must be avoided?
D. Misoprostol. Prostaglandin produces uterine contraction not used during pregnancy. Omeprazole Inhibits H+/K+ ATPase proton pump. Nizatidine H2 receptor antagonist. Cimetidine H2 receptor antagonist
D. Misoprostol. Prostaglandin produces uterine contraction not used during pregnancy. Omeprazole Inhibits H+/K+ ATPase proton pump. Nizatidine H2 receptor antagonist. Cimetidine H2 receptor antagonist
A 45 y/o patient with chronic liver disease is admitted to the general medicine ward due to upper gastrointestinal bleeding secondary to active peptic ulcer disease. Which of the following antisecretory agents is used safely in this case?
C. Nizatidine. Similar to Ranitidine but principally metabolized in the kidney and bioavailability is 100%. Famotidine is similar to ranitidine but more potent. Cimetidine low dose given to patient with hepatic or renal failure. Ranitidine is longer acting and more potent than Cimetidine.
C. Nizatidine. Similar to Ranitidine but principally metabolized in the kidney and bioavailability is 100%. Famotidine is similar to ranitidine but more potent. Cimetidine low dose given to patient with hepatic or renal failure. Ranitidine is longer acting and more potent than Cimetidine.
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor associated with long term use of omeprazole?
A. Secondary hypogastrinemia. Omeprazole caused hypergastrinemia
A. Secondary hypogastrinemia. Omeprazole caused hypergastrinemia
Which of the following drugs is a mast cell stabilizer?
A. Cromolyn sodium. Montelukast is an antileukotriene drug. Albuterol is a short acting beta blocker. Zileuton is a Antileukotriene
A. Cromolyn sodium. Montelukast is an antileukotriene drug. Albuterol is a short acting beta blocker. Zileuton is a Antileukotriene
Rescue agents basically behave as?
B. bronchodilator. Bronchodilators are medications that usually come in inhalers — they relax the muscles around your airways. This can help relieve coughing and shortness of breath and make breathing easier
B. bronchodilator. Bronchodilators are medications that usually come in inhalers — they relax the muscles around your airways. This can help relieve coughing and shortness of breath and make breathing easier
The benefit obtained by administering asthma drugs through the lung is that?
A. Systemic absorption of a drug is decreased when the drug is applied to the specific location of need. In this case systemic absorption is low when the drug is presented in inhalation form.
A. Systemic absorption of a drug is decreased when the drug is applied to the specific location of need. In this case systemic absorption is low when the drug is presented in inhalation form.
Second generation antihistamine differ from the classic (1st generation) antihistamines in that the second one
D. Second generation antihistamine do not have drowsiness effects. First generation cross the Blood brain barrier and cause drowsiness because of this.
D. Second generation antihistamine do not have drowsiness effects. First generation cross the Blood brain barrier and cause drowsiness because of this.
A 25 y/o male is allergic to penicillin but requires antibacterial treatment with a drug that has a similar spectrum of coverage. Which of the following should be prescribed?
B. Erythromycin.
B. Erythromycin.
A patient was administered medication to treat an ocular bacterial infection. Not long after, he developed Steven Johnson Syndrome. What drug is known to cause this side effect?
B. Sulfacetamide. Sulfa drugs are directly linked to SJS symptoms or exacerbating SJS. Because of this they should be avoided at all times in patients even suspected of SJS.
B. Sulfacetamide. Sulfa drugs are directly linked to SJS symptoms or exacerbating SJS. Because of this they should be avoided at all times in patients even suspected of SJS.
A 85 year old grandmother attends the doctor’s office. She complains she has short-term memory loss, and she seems to have no idea why her child brought her to this “horribly bright and white room with this stranger”. You diagnose the grandmother with Alzheimer’s disease. What drug should be prescribed to increase the amount of Ach in her brain to help treat it?
C. Echothiophate. Is a cholinergic agonist used in diagnosis myasthenia gravis. This drug directly increases the amount of Ach released by the parasympathetic nervous system.
C. Echothiophate. Is a cholinergic agonist used in diagnosis myasthenia gravis. This drug directly increases the amount of Ach released by the parasympathetic nervous system.
Which of the following is NOT a common side effect of cholinergic agonists?
A. Tachycardia is an adrenergic agonists response or cholinergic antagonistic response due. Cholinergic agonists promote parasympathetic responses. Think you use your cholen to relax and go to the bathroom. I.E. miosis, SLUDGE, bradycardia, vasodilation, bronchoconstriction.
A. Tachycardia is an adrenergic agonists response or cholinergic antagonistic response due. Cholinergic agonists promote parasympathetic responses. Think you use your cholen to relax and go to the bathroom. I.E. miosis, SLUDGE, bradycardia, vasodilation, bronchoconstriction.
Scopolamine is a common drug for motion sickness. From the following list, select 2 side-effects of Scopolamine.
A.E. Scopolamine crosses the blood brain barrier which causes sedation. Scopolamine is also a Cholinergic antagonist and will stop AcH, and decrease a patient Blood pressure.
A.E. Scopolamine crosses the blood brain barrier which causes sedation. Scopolamine is also a Cholinergic antagonist and will stop AcH, and decrease a patient Blood pressure.
You are working in the ER late one night, and a patient comes in who is having a severe heart attack with left ventricular failure. You know that this type of heart problem can cause pulmonary edema and as a result, high blood pressure. What drug should you give in this situation to reduce the BP?
A. Trimethaphan counteracts cholinergic transmission at the ganglion type of nicotinic receptors of the autonomic ganglia and therefore blocks both the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system
A. Trimethaphan counteracts cholinergic transmission at the ganglion type of nicotinic receptors of the autonomic ganglia and therefore blocks both the sympathetic nervous system and the parasympathetic nervous system
Of the Anti-Leukotriene drugs, all are effective orally and all but one inhibit cytochrome P450. Which of the following does NOT inhibit Cytochrome P450?
A. Theophylline is used to prevent and treat wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness caused by asthma, chronic bronchitis, emphysema, and other lung disease. It is the only one that inhibits Cytochrome P450
A. Theophylline is used to prevent and treat wheezing, shortness of breath, and chest tightness caused by asthma, chronic bronchitis, emphysema, and other lung disease. It is the only one that inhibits Cytochrome P450
What cholinergic antagonist reaches maximum mydriasis the fastest?
C. Scopolamine. Scopolamine reaches maximum mydriasis the fastest due to the fact that it crosses the blood brain barrier
C. Scopolamine. Scopolamine reaches maximum mydriasis the fastest due to the fact that it crosses the blood brain barrier
Which of the following is commonly employed for the treatment of ulcerative colitis?
A. Adalimumab – neutralization of TNF-alpha bioactivity by preventing the interaction of TNF-alpha with the cell surface TNF receptors
A. Adalimumab – neutralization of TNF-alpha bioactivity by preventing the interaction of TNF-alpha with the cell surface TNF receptors
Genital sores due to Herpes Simplex II is best treated with the combination of oral and topical
C. Acyclovir is converted to its triphosphate form, acyclovir triphosphate (ACV-TP), which competitively inhibits viral DNA polymerase, incorporates into and terminates the growing viral DNA chain, and inactivates the viral DNA polymerase
C. Acyclovir is converted to its triphosphate form, acyclovir triphosphate (ACV-TP), which competitively inhibits viral DNA polymerase, incorporates into and terminates the growing viral DNA chain, and inactivates the viral DNA polymerase
Which of the following antiviral agents of choice is used to treat herpes simplex virus keratoconjunctivitis?
D. Trifluridine (Viroptic) is a fluorinated pyrimidine nucleoside which irreversibly inhibits thymidylate synthase and specific DNA polymerases, necessary for the conversion of dUMP to dTMP in the process of DNA synthesis
D. Trifluridine (Viroptic) is a fluorinated pyrimidine nucleoside which irreversibly inhibits thymidylate synthase and specific DNA polymerases, necessary for the conversion of dUMP to dTMP in the process of DNA synthesis
Pseudomembranous colitis is a complication known to occur with the use of?
A. Clindamycin works primarily by binding to the 50s ribosomal subunit of bacteria. This agent disrupts protein synthesis by interfering with the transpeptidation reaction, which thereby inhibits early chain elongation.
A. Clindamycin works primarily by binding to the 50s ribosomal subunit of bacteria. This agent disrupts protein synthesis by interfering with the transpeptidation reaction, which thereby inhibits early chain elongation.
Maria is a 24 year old hispanic female suffering from chronic migraines. Which of the following beta blockers can you administer prophylactically to relieve her symptoms?
C. Propranolol. Is used to directly treat heart issues. Timolol is an ocular beta blocker used to treat glaucoma.
C. Propranolol. Is used to directly treat heart issues. Timolol is an ocular beta blocker used to treat glaucoma.
Which of the following is NOT a side effect of alpha adrenergic blockers?
D. Hypertension. Hypertension is a side effect of adrenergic agonists because of vasoconstriction issues.
D. Hypertension. Hypertension is a side effect of adrenergic agonists because of vasoconstriction issues.
Which catecholamine produces vasodilation at low doses and vasoconstriction at high doses?
B. epinephrine
B. epinephrine
Which of the following adrenoreceptors mediates increased tachycardia and increased lipolysis?
A. B1 is found on the heart. B2 found on the lungs
A. B1 is found on the heart. B2 found on the lungs
Methotrexate affects which of the following systems? (SELECT 2)
A.F. Methotrexate. Methotrexate is in a class of medications called antimetabolites. Methotrexate treats cancer by slowing the growth of cancer cells. Methotrexate treats psoriasis by slowing the growth of skin cells to stop scales from forming. Methotrexate may treat rheumatoid arthritis by decreasing the activity of the immune system.
A.F. Methotrexate. Methotrexate is in a class of medications called antimetabolites. Methotrexate treats cancer by slowing the growth of cancer cells. Methotrexate treats psoriasis by slowing the growth of skin cells to stop scales from forming. Methotrexate may treat rheumatoid arthritis by decreasing the activity of the immune system.
Alpha adrenergic receptors have a high affinity for which of the following?
C. Epinephrine. Alpha adrenergic receptors are involved in neurotransmission and regulate the sympathetic nervous system through binding and activating the neurotransmitter, norepinephrine, and the neurohormone, epinephrine.
C. Epinephrine. Alpha adrenergic receptors are involved in neurotransmission and regulate the sympathetic nervous system through binding and activating the neurotransmitter, norepinephrine, and the neurohormone, epinephrine.
An indirect acting adrenergic agonist is what?
E. direct agonist act on the muscle. Cholinergic fibers release acetylcholine
E. direct agonist act on the muscle. Cholinergic fibers release acetylcholine
Which of the following drugs are used in the diagnosis of adie’s tonic
C. Pilocarpine 0.1% is better than 1%. Typically we use 0.125%. Cocaine is used in diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome
C. Pilocarpine 0.1% is better than 1%. Typically we use 0.125%. Cocaine is used in diagnosis of Horner’s syndrome
Ceftriaxone is useful in the management of which of the following?
B. Ceftriaxone 1g is a treatment for syphilis.
B. Ceftriaxone 1g is a treatment for syphilis.
What test is MOST beneficial in determining stages of cancer in a patient?
C. Positron Emission Tomography is a scan that is used to analyze the metabolic activity of tissue. Because of this, PET scans are more helpful in determining the stage of cancer in an organ.
C. Positron Emission Tomography is a scan that is used to analyze the metabolic activity of tissue. Because of this, PET scans are more helpful in determining the stage of cancer in an organ.