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Optometry Board Practice Test for the NBEO® Part 1 Test #1 – Pharmacology This test is comprised of 36 items, which must be completed within 36 minutes. |
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Which of the following are considered second generation Fluoroquinolones? (PICK 2)
A/D. Both Ciprofloxacin and Ofloxacin are second generation Fluoroquinolones. Recall “CO2” for second generation and “Three LEVO clover” for third generation. There are no first generation Fluoroquinolones. This information is important as second generation target Gram Negative bacteria while later generations could be used to target both Negative and Positive.
A/D. Both Ciprofloxacin and Ofloxacin are second generation Fluoroquinolones. Recall “CO2” for second generation and “Three LEVO clover” for third generation. There are no first generation Fluoroquinolones. This information is important as second generation target Gram Negative bacteria while later generations could be used to target both Negative and Positive.
All of the following medications are used in treatment of Tuberculosis, EXCEPT:
C. Pyrimethamine is NOT used in treatment of Tuberculosis. It is important to note that Isoniazid and Rifampin can be used in isolation for treatment of Latent TB. Active TB is treated with a combination of the RIPE medications.
C. Pyrimethamine is NOT used in treatment of Tuberculosis. It is important to note that Isoniazid and Rifampin can be used in isolation for treatment of Latent TB. Active TB is treated with a combination of the RIPE medications.
Which of the following medications is a potent reverse transcriptase inhibitor used in the treatment of HIV?
B. Zidovudine, also known as Retrovir, inhibits the viral RNA-dependent, DNA polymerase responsible for reverse transcription. RIbavirin is used in treatment of Hepatitis C. Foscarnet is used in treatment of CMV that is not responding to other antivirals. Natamycin is an antifungal.
B. Zidovudine, also known as Retrovir, inhibits the viral RNA-dependent, DNA polymerase responsible for reverse transcription. RIbavirin is used in treatment of Hepatitis C. Foscarnet is used in treatment of CMV that is not responding to other antivirals. Natamycin is an antifungal.
Which of the following drugs used in the treatment against the Herpes Virus contains Thimerosal – a preservative known to cause SPK and delay of corneal wound healing?
A. Trifluridine, also known as Viroptic, contains Thimerosal – a mercury-based preservative found in drops. The remaining options are oral medications used in treatment of herpes virus.
A. Trifluridine, also known as Viroptic, contains Thimerosal – a mercury-based preservative found in drops. The remaining options are oral medications used in treatment of herpes virus.
All of the following medications are classified as antifungals, EXCEPT:
C. Oseltamivir, also known as Tamiflu, is used in the treatment of Influenza. The remaining options are antifungals. Of note, Natamycin is NOT a Macrolide as the name indicates.
C. Oseltamivir, also known as Tamiflu, is used in the treatment of Influenza. The remaining options are antifungals. Of note, Natamycin is NOT a Macrolide as the name indicates.
Which of the following antimicrobial medications works by preventing transfer of peptidoglycan into a growing bacterial wall?
D. Bacitracin prevents bacterial wall synthesis by inhibiting transfer of peptidoglycan into the growing wall. Oxacillin and Cephalexin inhibit transpeptidase. Gentamicin inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding 30s subunits of the bacterial ribosome.
D. Bacitracin prevents bacterial wall synthesis by inhibiting transfer of peptidoglycan into the growing wall. Oxacillin and Cephalexin inhibit transpeptidase. Gentamicin inhibits bacterial protein synthesis by binding 30s subunits of the bacterial ribosome.
Which of the following statements regarding Penicillins and Cephalosporins is INCORRECT?
D. If a patient is on Warfarin, it is best to prescribe a Penicillin. Cephalosporins may destroy normal intestinal flora thus altering Vitamin K absorption. This may lead to excessive thinning of the blood in conjunction with Warfarin.
D. If a patient is on Warfarin, it is best to prescribe a Penicillin. Cephalosporins may destroy normal intestinal flora thus altering Vitamin K absorption. This may lead to excessive thinning of the blood in conjunction with Warfarin.
Which of the following drug classes function by binding the 30s subunit of bacterial ribosomes? (PICK 2)
B/C. Recall, “Buy AT 30, CEL at 50”. Aminoglycosides and Tetracyclines act by binding the 30s subunit of bacterial ribosomes and preventing protein synthesis. The other three classes work by binding the 50s subunit.
B/C. Recall, “Buy AT 30, CEL at 50”. Aminoglycosides and Tetracyclines act by binding the 30s subunit of bacterial ribosomes and preventing protein synthesis. The other three classes work by binding the 50s subunit.
Which of the following medications inhibit bacterial synthesis by binding the 50s subunit of bacterial ribosomes?
C. Azithromycin is classified as a Macrolide. Recall “Buy AT 30, CEL at 50”. CEL stands for Chloramphenicol, Erythromycin (Macrolides), and Lincomycin. These meds target the 50s subunit. Doxycycline and Gentamicin target the 30s subunit. Sulfacetamide is a sulfonamide that inhibits DHP synthase.
C. Azithromycin is classified as a Macrolide. Recall “Buy AT 30, CEL at 50”. CEL stands for Chloramphenicol, Erythromycin (Macrolides), and Lincomycin. These meds target the 50s subunit. Doxycycline and Gentamicin target the 30s subunit. Sulfacetamide is a sulfonamide that inhibits DHP synthase.
What is the mechanism of action of Natamycin?
C. Natamycin is an antifungal that works by inhibiting ergosterol thereby forming pores in cell walls. This leads to cell death. Recall that Natamycin is NOT a macrolide – a drug class that inhibits the 50s subunit of bacterial ribosomes. Penicillins inhibit transpeptidase.
C. Natamycin is an antifungal that works by inhibiting ergosterol thereby forming pores in cell walls. This leads to cell death. Recall that Natamycin is NOT a macrolide – a drug class that inhibits the 50s subunit of bacterial ribosomes. Penicillins inhibit transpeptidase.
All of the following are systemic effects of chronic steroid use, EXCEPT:
A. Weight GAIN is common in chronic steroid use. Chronic steroid use comes with many risks including the above as well as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or peptic ulcers. Ocular effects include PSC cataracts, glaucoma, and risk of secondary infections.
A. Weight GAIN is common in chronic steroid use. Chronic steroid use comes with many risks including the above as well as hypertension, diabetes mellitus, or peptic ulcers. Ocular effects include PSC cataracts, glaucoma, and risk of secondary infections.
Which of the following medications can lead to development of Reye’s Syndrome when given to young children?
C. Aspirin use in children leads to the development of Reye’s syndrome – a rapid degenerative brain disease that is marked with confusion, seizures, and multi-organ failure.
C. Aspirin use in children leads to the development of Reye’s syndrome – a rapid degenerative brain disease that is marked with confusion, seizures, and multi-organ failure.
Which of the following is NOT considered a first generation Oral Antihistamine?
B. Loratidine is an example of a second generation antihistamine. To recall, “phen” in the drug name is a clue to determining first generation – exception of promethazine. First generation antihistamines penetrate the blood/barrier more easily than second generation antihistamines. This leads to less side effects such as sedation.
B. Loratidine is an example of a second generation antihistamine. To recall, “phen” in the drug name is a clue to determining first generation – exception of promethazine. First generation antihistamines penetrate the blood/barrier more easily than second generation antihistamines. This leads to less side effects such as sedation.
All of the following prevent histamine stimulation of gastric sedation by blocking H2 receptors, EXCEPT:
A. Loratidine is a second generation antihistamine. This question is here to demonstrate the mechanism of action of H2 blockers in treatment of stomach ulcers and acid reflux. We are also taught to remember H2 blockers from the “-tidine”. Here is one exception, do not forget on test day.
A. Loratidine is a second generation antihistamine. This question is here to demonstrate the mechanism of action of H2 blockers in treatment of stomach ulcers and acid reflux. We are also taught to remember H2 blockers from the “-tidine”. Here is one exception, do not forget on test day.
What is the mechanism of action of Nexium – a drug commonly used in the treatment of GERD?
C. Nexium and its sister drug Prilosec are classified as Proton Pump Inhibitors. PPIs function by inhibiting H+/K+ ATPase proton pumps.These medications are used in treatment of peptic ulcer disease and GERD.
C. Nexium and its sister drug Prilosec are classified as Proton Pump Inhibitors. PPIs function by inhibiting H+/K+ ATPase proton pumps.These medications are used in treatment of peptic ulcer disease and GERD.
A patient is experiencing an asthma attack in your office. Which of the following medications needs to be administered?
B. Albuterol is a short acting Beta-2 agonist used as a rescue inhaler for Asthma and COPD. Other short acting agonists include Levalbuterol, Terbutaline, Metaproterenol (no longer used due to excessive cardiovascular effects) and Isoproterenol (nonspecific Beta agonist used in treatment of arrhythmias). Salmeterol is a long acting Beta-2 agonist used in maintenance therapy of the above conditions.
B. Albuterol is a short acting Beta-2 agonist used as a rescue inhaler for Asthma and COPD. Other short acting agonists include Levalbuterol, Terbutaline, Metaproterenol (no longer used due to excessive cardiovascular effects) and Isoproterenol (nonspecific Beta agonist used in treatment of arrhythmias). Salmeterol is a long acting Beta-2 agonist used in maintenance therapy of the above conditions.
Which of the following statements regarding Acetaminophen is FALSE?
B. Acetaminophen, also known as Tylenol, functions as an analgesic and antipyretic that does not have anticoagulant nor anti-inflammatory properties. Tylenol is safe to use in all ages and during pregnancy.
B. Acetaminophen, also known as Tylenol, functions as an analgesic and antipyretic that does not have anticoagulant nor anti-inflammatory properties. Tylenol is safe to use in all ages and during pregnancy.
A patient is experiencing an opioid overdose in the waiting room. Which of the following medications must be given stat to reverse these effects?
A. Naloxone, also known as Narcan, is administered to those experiencing an opioid overdose. Narcan acts as an opioid antagonist to reverse effects.
A. Naloxone, also known as Narcan, is administered to those experiencing an opioid overdose. Narcan acts as an opioid antagonist to reverse effects.
What are the two functions of the medication, Sumatriptan? (PICK 2)
B/C. Sumatriptan, a drug commonly used as a therapy for Migraines, functions as an anti-inflammatory and vasoconstrictor. Sumatriptan is an agonist of 5-HT1B and 1D receptors.
B/C. Sumatriptan, a drug commonly used as a therapy for Migraines, functions as an anti-inflammatory and vasoconstrictor. Sumatriptan is an agonist of 5-HT1B and 1D receptors.
Which of the following medications is commonly used in treatment of Parkinsons?
C. Bromocriptine, a dopamine agonist, is commonly used in treatment of Parkinsons. Amantadine is also considered a dopamine agonist used to treat Parkinsons.
C. Bromocriptine, a dopamine agonist, is commonly used in treatment of Parkinsons. Amantadine is also considered a dopamine agonist used to treat Parkinsons.
Tricyclic antidepressants function by increasing _______ levels in the synaptic cleft. (PICK 2)
B/D. TCAs function by increasing levels of serotonin, norepinephrine/epinephrine, and anticholinergic activity. These three functions lead to increased sympathetic output.
B/D. TCAs function by increasing levels of serotonin, norepinephrine/epinephrine, and anticholinergic activity. These three functions lead to increased sympathetic output.
Which of the following medications is contraindicated for use with Phenylephrine?
D. Nardil, also known as Phenylzine, is a Monoamine oxidase inhibitor. MAO is an enzyme found in the synaptic cleft that breaks down norepinephrine and serotonin to be taken back up. By inhibiting MAO, norepinephrine and serotonin may remain active in the cleft for longer. When used in combination with Phenylephrine, there is too much sympathetic activity.
D. Nardil, also known as Phenylzine, is a Monoamine oxidase inhibitor. MAO is an enzyme found in the synaptic cleft that breaks down norepinephrine and serotonin to be taken back up. By inhibiting MAO, norepinephrine and serotonin may remain active in the cleft for longer. When used in combination with Phenylephrine, there is too much sympathetic activity.
Which of the following medications used in treatment of Diabetes Mellitus does NOT cause hypoglycemia?
A. Metformin is the only known DM drug that does not cause hypoglycemia. For this reason, Metformin is considered first line therapy for T2DM.
A. Metformin is the only known DM drug that does not cause hypoglycemia. For this reason, Metformin is considered first line therapy for T2DM.
A patient reports an allergy to Sulfa drugs. Which of the following medications is safe to prescribe?
D. Ciprofloxacin is safe to use in patients with Sulfa allergies. Sulfa drug classes include: Penicillins, CAIs, Sulfonylureas, and Sulfonamides.
D. Ciprofloxacin is safe to use in patients with Sulfa allergies. Sulfa drug classes include: Penicillins, CAIs, Sulfonylureas, and Sulfonamides.
What is the mechanism of action of Sildenafil?
C. Sildenafil, also known as Viagra, functions by inhibiting phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE-5). PDE-5 breaks down cGMP which will lead to weakening of smooth muscle.
C. Sildenafil, also known as Viagra, functions by inhibiting phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE-5). PDE-5 breaks down cGMP which will lead to weakening of smooth muscle.
Levothyroxine functions by acting as synthetic ____.
B. Levothyroxine, also known as Synthroid, is a synthetic T4 agent that is used for the treatment of Hypothyroidism. Many patients take this medication chronically post-thyroidectomy. Side effects include Hyperthyroidism and IIH.
B. Levothyroxine, also known as Synthroid, is a synthetic T4 agent that is used for the treatment of Hypothyroidism. Many patients take this medication chronically post-thyroidectomy. Side effects include Hyperthyroidism and IIH.
Which of the following medications used in the treatment of elevated blood pressure does not cause patients to develop a productive cough?
A. Losartan, an Angiotensin II receptor antagonist (ARB) is used to treat hypertension. It does not have any effect on bradykinin activity, thus leaving lungs unaffected for cough. The remaining options are ACE inhibitors which act by preventing formation of angiotensin II through ACE inhibition as well as blocking metabolism of bradykinins causing vasodilation.
A. Losartan, an Angiotensin II receptor antagonist (ARB) is used to treat hypertension. It does not have any effect on bradykinin activity, thus leaving lungs unaffected for cough. The remaining options are ACE inhibitors which act by preventing formation of angiotensin II through ACE inhibition as well as blocking metabolism of bradykinins causing vasodilation.
Which of the following diuretic medications is the only medication to affect the Ascending Loop of Henle in the nephron?
D. Furosemide is the only diuretic to affect the ascending loop of Henle. Furosemide functions by inhibiting Na+/2Cl-/K+ co-transporter while also increasing Ca2+ secretion. Use of Furosemide may lead to development of hypokalemia and/or nephrotoxicity.
D. Furosemide is the only diuretic to affect the ascending loop of Henle. Furosemide functions by inhibiting Na+/2Cl-/K+ co-transporter while also increasing Ca2+ secretion. Use of Furosemide may lead to development of hypokalemia and/or nephrotoxicity.
All of the following are possible side effects of Hydrochlorothiazide, EXCEPT:
B. It is not a HYPEROPIC shift but rather a MYOPIC shift. The remaining options are correct. Of note, the dry eye is from decreased secretion from the lacrimal gland.
B. It is not a HYPEROPIC shift but rather a MYOPIC shift. The remaining options are correct. Of note, the dry eye is from decreased secretion from the lacrimal gland.
Which of the following diuretics is able to increase plasma osmolarity across the entire nephron?
C. Mannitol, also known as Osmitrol, is a diuretic that affects the entire nephron. It works by increasing plasma osmolarity to draw water out.
C. Mannitol, also known as Osmitrol, is a diuretic that affects the entire nephron. It works by increasing plasma osmolarity to draw water out.
All of the following medications have reversible effects, EXCEPT:
B. Clopidogrel, also known as Plavix, is an anticoagulant that functions by inhibiting ADP receptors on platelet cell membranes. This receptor is critical for platelet aggregation and clot formation.
B. Clopidogrel, also known as Plavix, is an anticoagulant that functions by inhibiting ADP receptors on platelet cell membranes. This receptor is critical for platelet aggregation and clot formation.
The effects of the anticoagulant, Warfarin, can be reversed with which of the following vitamins?
E. Vitamin K reverses the effects of Warfarin. Warfarin, also known as Coumadin, is a Vitamin K antagonist. It prevents clots by interfering with formation of clotting factors that are dependent on Vitamin K.
E. Vitamin K reverses the effects of Warfarin. Warfarin, also known as Coumadin, is a Vitamin K antagonist. It prevents clots by interfering with formation of clotting factors that are dependent on Vitamin K.
Which of the following medications function by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase?
A. Simvastatin, also known as Zocor, is one of three cholesterol medications that function by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase. This enzyme is responsible for production of cholesterol. These medications are first line therapies. Gemfibrozil binds to PPAR-alpha leading to breakdown of VLDL. Cholestyramine binds bile acids in intestines to prevent reabsorption. Isotretinoin is a distractor as it is used in treatment of acne.
A. Simvastatin, also known as Zocor, is one of three cholesterol medications that function by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase. This enzyme is responsible for production of cholesterol. These medications are first line therapies. Gemfibrozil binds to PPAR-alpha leading to breakdown of VLDL. Cholestyramine binds bile acids in intestines to prevent reabsorption. Isotretinoin is a distractor as it is used in treatment of acne.
What is the mechanism of action of Digoxin?
A. Digoxin, a medication used in treatment of congestive heart failure, functions by inhibiting Na+/K+ ATPase resulting in increased intracellular Ca2+. Side effects include Retrobulbar Optic Neuritis and/or B/Y color defects.
A. Digoxin, a medication used in treatment of congestive heart failure, functions by inhibiting Na+/K+ ATPase resulting in increased intracellular Ca2+. Side effects include Retrobulbar Optic Neuritis and/or B/Y color defects.
All of the following medications must be taken with an empty stomach, EXCEPT:
B. Doxycycline must be digested after eating/with food. To recall, “PAT your stomach” for drug classes that must be taken with an empty stomach and include: Penicillins, Azithromycin (Macrolides), and Tetracycline. This is a trick question as Doxycycline, a Tetracycline, is the one exception that must be taken with food.
B. Doxycycline must be digested after eating/with food. To recall, “PAT your stomach” for drug classes that must be taken with an empty stomach and include: Penicillins, Azithromycin (Macrolides), and Tetracycline. This is a trick question as Doxycycline, a Tetracycline, is the one exception that must be taken with food.
Which of the following drug classes is safe to use during pregnancy?
C. Cephalosporins are safe to use during pregnancy. To recall, “She is not FATS, she is PACking a baby”. FATS are not safe to use during pregnancy and includes: Fluoroquinolones, Aminoglycosides, Tetracyclines, and Sulfonamides. PAC is safe to use and includes: Penicillins, Azithromycin (Macrolides), and Cephalosporins.
C. Cephalosporins are safe to use during pregnancy. To recall, “She is not FATS, she is PACking a baby”. FATS are not safe to use during pregnancy and includes: Fluoroquinolones, Aminoglycosides, Tetracyclines, and Sulfonamides. PAC is safe to use and includes: Penicillins, Azithromycin (Macrolides), and Cephalosporins.